06
Jan
Posted by mike as gdrw.com
One source said that a 1940's law specified something to this effect:
If you state a specification for your "goods", it must not deviate
from this amount. Therefore a 0% tolerance for quality of goods.
Real World example: 2nd installment of carpet was over 7% different
(inferior) than previous. "Industry Standards" (i.e., Not CA law) said
7%.
Seeking the CA law to support 0% tolerance.
Thanks!!!I think the below sites will help a lot.
look unde "MISREPRESENTATION"
CHECKLIST OF SIGNIFICANT CALIFORNIA AND FEDERAL CONSUMER LAWS
http://www.dca.ca.gov/legal/m-1.htmlor
or
CIVIL CODE SECTION 1770
http://www.leginfo.ca.gov/cgi-bin/displaycode?section=civ&group=01001-02000&file=1770
1770. (a) The following unfair methods of competition and unfair or
deceptive acts or practices undertaken by any person in a
transaction intended to result or which results in the sale or lease
of goods or services to any consumer are unlawful:
...
(7) Representing that goods or services are of a particular
standard, quality, or grade, or that goods are of a particular style
or model, if they are of another.Thanks joe916-ga for the comment. I'm really looking for a CA law or
reference with a #% that would make for a stonger argument. Thanks and
please let me know if you know find such a reference!#If you have any other info about this subject , Please add it free.# |
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